If you google “Braveheart”, among the first couple images that come up are this:
and this:
These images are some of the most immediately recognizable ones from the film. And, sadly, they’re complete crap in terms of historical accuracy.
What Medieval Scots Wore 13th century Scotsmen wore clothing that resembled what most northern and western Europeans wore in that period. Both men and women wore tunics (in Gaelic, a leine), a long, loose-fitting shirt that reached down to about the knee for men and about the ankle for women. A man might have worn an undertunic, while women typically wore a kirtle, a simple underdress like a loose slip; in both cases the undergarment would have extended slightly farther than the overgarment, showing below the hemline and the cuff. Men (and women in some circumstances) also wore ‘braies’, a rather baggy pair of shorts that generally reached to the knees or a bit lower. Men and women might also wear hose, footless leggings to keep the legs warm. (See Update.)
These would typically have been of wool, and in general they would have been plain rather than patterned. For many they would have been undyed, and so would have been shades of off-white to brown. A very simple form of tartan may have existed in medieval Scotland (a very early example survives from the 3rd century AD, making it pre-medieval, but there’s no surviving evidence from the medieval period itself), but if tartan was worn in this period, it would have been a very simple checker pattern created with light and dark brown wool. So the fabric Wallace wears in the first picture is possible, although there is no evidence that such a fabric was actually produced or worn in medieval Scotland. What we think of today as ‘clan tartans’ were an invention of the 18th century; if medieval Scotmen wore any sort of tartan fabric, it would not have signified membership in a particular clan or family.
More importantly, however, kilts did not exist in the Middle Ages, in Scotland or anywhere else in Europe. The earliest kilts, known as ‘belted plaid’ or ‘great kilts’, evolved out of cloaks worn over tunics. In other words, like the toga, the great kilt is a form of outer garment, worn outside to help keep one warm in cold, wet weather. It was not worn into battle; when early modern Scotsmen prepared for combat, they took off the great kilt and charged into the fight wearing just their leine. Also, they did not belt their kilts in anything remotely like the way kilts are worn in the film.
Any halfway knowledgable costume designer working on a film about medieval Scotland would know that kilts aren’t medieval, and if he or she didn’t know, it would be an easy fact to look up. In this case, the costume designer was Charles Knode, a highly experienced costumer (one of his first major jobs was 1979’s Life of Brian). And yet, despite this, a majority of the Celts (both Scots and Irish) in this film are shown wearing tartan great kilts. So, just to make sure we’re clear about what’s wrong with this, imagine a film set during the American War of Independence. All the American rebels are shown dressed in 20th century business suits, and they’ve put the belts of their pants on over the coats of their suits. How in God’s name did an experienced costume designer make such as massive set of errors?
In order to understand films, it’s critical to realize that virtually everything that appears on screen is the result of active choices that someone made. With the exception of goofs like a catching a boom mike in the shot, what you see on the screen is the product of conscious choices. Set designers, set decorators, costume designers, hair and make-up designers, directors, screenwriters, and actors all make decisions about what they are going to put on screen. So at some point Charles Knode made a decision to produce clothing that he almost certainly knew was completely incorrect. Why?
As the author of Threat Quality Press points out, the answer is not history but historicity. The people making the film didn’t want to make an historically accurate film about medieval Scotland; they wanted to make a film that fits people’s ideas of what medieval Scotland looked like. What they wanted was not actual history, but the impression of history. The one thing that most people know about the Scots is that they used to wear kilts. So Charles Knode decided (or perhaps was told by Gibson) to clothe his medieval Scots in kilts. And he did it well enough that most casual viewers will assume that what they are seeing is correct. Those American revolutionaries might be wearing mis-belted 20th century business suits, but they look plausible.
The Infamous Scottish Mullets But it’s not just the clothing that’s completely wrong. Take another look at that second pic, the close-up of Gibson as Wallace. He’s wearing an unkempt 20th century mullet with a couple braids in it. This is fairly typical of how the Scots and Irish are styled in this film. Some of the men have feathers in their hair. There’s absolutely no evidence that medieval Scotmen wore their hair long (which would probably have struck contemporaries as a very feminine style), nor is there evidence that they braided their hair or tied things into it. And even if they did wear their hair long, they certainly would have combed it. Wallace isn’t wearing a traditional Scottish hairstyle; he’s wearing a late-20th century biker or stoner dude’s hairstyle.
Why? Because it makes him look masculine by contemporary standards, while at the same time conveying both untamed wildness and a premodern primitiveness. It enables male viewers of the film to feel a sense of kinship with Wallace and his band of plucky Scottish rebels. It makes him seem more contemporary and therefore accessible.
As a basic rule of thumb, assume that the hairstyles you see in historical films are wrong; the women are almost always styled to be attractive by modern tastes not to be accurate, and the men are just a little less likely to be styled that way.
So those American revolutionaries in their mis-belted business suits? They’re all wearing high-and-tights.
And Then We Get to the Make-up
Of course the thing that stands out the most is that the men are wearing blue face paint. At this point in my analysis, part of me just wants to bang his head on the table and scream “WTF?” But, because I’m committed to helping you make sense of this historical train-wreck of a film, I will swallow my pain and soldier bravely into the lion’s den.
In case it needs saying, medieval Scotsmen did not wear face paint. The inspiration for this make-up choice probably came from some ideas about the Picts, one of the original, pre-Scottish indigenous peoples of Scotland. There’s a lot to be said about the Picts, but I’m not going to say it here; I’ll save it for The Eagle perhaps. But a very quick digression to the Roman period is necessary.
The Scots aren’t, in origin, Scottish. They’re Irish. They originally came over from Ireland to Dal Riata (western Scotland) in the 6th and 7th centuries. Central Scotland, especially the highland region, was occupied by a people called the Picts, whose ethnic background is still a matter of some debate; some scholars have seen them as a branch of the Celtic peoples, while others feel they are the indigenous, non-Celtic peoples. The ancient Romans tended to use the term ‘Pict’ to refer to all the peoples north of Hadrian’s Wall, probably lumping together a couple of different ethnic groups and cultures. The term ‘Pict’ seems to have been coined in the 3nd century AD, and it means ‘Painted Ones’, at least assuming that the term means what it means in Latin; it’s possible that it’s a Latinization of their name for themselves, in which case we have no idea what it means.
Exactly why they referred to the Picts this way is unclear. One 1st century AD source says that the people of Briton (almost certainly referring to low-land Britons like the Iceni) painted themselves, but it’s not clear that the author actually knew anything about the group we’re calling the Picts. One or two later sources make reference to the Picts painting or tattooing themselves, but that might be because the term ‘Pict’ suggested a people who did these things. It’s important to understand that the Romans had deep contempt for people who voluntarily tattooed themselves; tattooing was a mark of barbarism and social inferiority, something Romans sometimes did to slaves and criminals. In other words, calling these people ‘Picts’ is essentially calling them ‘Savages’. Maybe it means that the Picts painted or more likely tattooed themselves, but maybe it just means that the Romans thought they were a barbaric people. Remembers that during World Wars I and II, the British liked to call the Germans ‘the Huns’, not because the Germans were of Hunnish descent, but because it connotes savagery.
So maybe the Picts liked to wear war paint, or had elaborate facial tattoos. We can’t prove it, but it’s not a wild historical error to show Roman-era Picts decorated that way. But guess what? We’re not dealing with Roman-era Picts in this film. We’re dealing with 13th century Scotsmen, who are descended from a people who displaced, conquered and completely absorbed the Picts. There is absolutely no evidence for Pictish influence on 13th century Scottish culture. By the 11th century the Picts had been completely assimilated to Scottish culture, and they left only archaeological remains and a few hard-to-understand documents. There is absolutely no historical evidence that 13th century Scotsmen painted their faces. But you know who does paint their faces? These guys:
Yup; American sports fans are pretty well-known for this sort of thing. Mel Gibson has given us 13th century Scots made up like 20th century sports fans. And he did it for the same reason that he gave himself a mullet. It makes his character more appealing and accessible to the target audience. He turned the battle of Stirling Bridge into a sports match and showed you which guys to cheer for by painting their faces like sports fans. So those American revolutionaries with their mis-belted business suits and their high-and-tights? They’re wearing Native American war paint.
And you know what’s even worse? The lead make-up artists for Braveheart, (Peter Frampton, Paul Pattison, and Lois Burwell) won an Oscar for their work on this film. Let’s be charitable to the Academy and propose that they gave the award for all of the blood the make-up team painted on Gibson’s face, or because they were just caught up in the excitement surrounding a high-grossing film, and not because they were too dumb or coked-up to notice that the most visible make-up in the film was a thousand years out of place and on the wrong guys.
I’m just going to curl up in a fetal ball now and quietly weep.
Update: A friend who read this argued to me that Gibson had almost certainly ordered Charles Knode to dress the Scots in kilts. He said that this is a common problem for costume designers, who often know what clothing would be correct but are then over-ridden by directors for reasons of historicity.
I agree that there is a very strong possibility that this is true (and I even suggest it at one point). However, Knode was the man who got the credit for the costuming, and he got an Oscar nomination (although, in what might be a surprising fit of historical clarity on the Academy’s part, he didn’t win), so I think he deserves his share of the blame on this point. While Gibson made a stinker of a film, it wasn’t entirely his fault; he needed a lot of help. As Halle Berry once said about Catwoman, “you don’t win a Razzie without a lot of help from a lot of people…In order to give a really bad performance like I did, you need a lot of bad actors around you.” (By the way, give her speech a look; it’s quite funny. After Braveheart, I needed a good laugh.)
Update: After a comment I received, I did a little more digging and found that 13th and early 14th century hosen were more likely to be footed than footless.
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As you are stating all the mistakes in this movie perhaps you could mention another very large mistake, I did Mel Gibsons hair spending hours every morning Paul Pattison never came any way near him or for that matter any artist he spent his time on the make up bus. I should have won that Oscar if you could list that, I would be grateful
Regards,
Sue Love
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Sue,
Thanks for telling me that. Any insights you’d care to offer on the film and why decisions were made the way they were?
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One very, very minor side-note. When Britons of the Twentieth Century called the Germans “Huns,” they were echoing the words of Wilhelm II, King of Prussia and German Kaiser, who in exhorted his troops departing to deal with the Boxer rebellion to behave like the Huns under King Etzel (Attila). Wilhelm was referring to the legendary Huns of the 13th century “Nibelungenlied” (in which Etzel is quite an exemplary character), but the English propagandists delightedly seized upon the name as typifying the Germans as barbarians in their own words.
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Nice article. However one point jumped out at me. You said that the Scots did not have long hair at that point in time. I beg to differ and can supply ample proof if you contact me. I was asked prior to the making of the film to sit in and advise with the Clan Wallace in Glasgow regarding the clothing used in the film. I said to them that the proper clothing was the saffron léine and the reply from the films ‘executives’ was that “America wants tartan”.
Also, the word Pict does NOT mean ‘painted’. It comes from Welsh and means ‘the wheat growers’. I’m sure you have heard of P and Q Celts. Irish and Scots Gaelic are of the Q Celtic group. For the less educated that basically means that certain words are common to both language except for the ‘p’ and ‘q/c’ sounds. Therefore, the Welsh word is Pretani and the Gaelic for Picts is Cruithneach. Wheat growers, though correct, sound less sexy thatn ‘the tatooed/painted people’.
Proinsias Mag Fhionnghaile
The only ‘daily’ wearer of the ancient léine.
pmagfhionnghaile@hotmail.com
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The status of the Picts as a branch of the P Celts is still, to the best of my knowledge, contested by scholars. I have seen scholars arguing both for and against the Celtic identity of the Picts. Some scholars insist they are not Celtic but rather represent the indigenous pre-Celtic inhabitants of Britain. DNA studies might possibly shed light on this, but since ‘Celt’ is a cultural and not biological grouping, it might not.
Since the Romans call them Picts, the usual argument is that the term has a Latin derivation, and therefore means ‘Painted Ones’. I’m not wedded to that translation, as I’ve explained in other posts. Given that the few surviving Pictish inscriptions have resisted definitive translation, I think we have to say that the jury is still out (unless there’s been a major scholarly breakthrough that I’ve missed, which is possible).
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My understanding was that ‘Picti’ could have been the latinisation of a name for the inhabitants of the regions north of Hadrian’s wall before the time of the Roman occupation of Britain, and that the name was most likely used by either neighbours or tribal rivals, and that it may have been related to the German term ‘Wichtel’, and / or Latin ‘Vectis’ (as in ‘Insula Vectis’ = Isle of Wight), or indeed the later English equivalent ‘pixie’. ‘Wichtel’ is the diminutive of ‘Wicht’, which means living being, so at some stage that may have referred back to a self-definition as ‘people’ (analagous to how the German tribal name ‘Alamanni’ meant ‘all the people’ but is now the specific term used by French and Spanish to refer to Germans).
Trouble is p/b/q/c/k/g/gh/ch/x/w/h have been subject to multiple consonant shifts…
‘Painted ones’ still doesn’t ring true to me.
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Massive conjecture overload. Take a look at the Pictish stones and tell me there are no examples of long hair and ‘Great Kilts’.
Nobody knows for sure about any of this. It’s all guess work but at least we have some solid (its carved in stone) evidence to support how they may have dressed.
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Sorry, but Pictish stones, which depict Pictish culture in the 6th-8th centuries tell us nothing whatsoever about 13th century Scotland. That’s like saying that pre-Columban Native American artwork can tell us things about 20th century American fashion.
Saying ‘nobody knows anything about this’ is just untrue. We know quite a lot about this. It’s what historians do. The origins of the Great Kilt are quite probably 16th century and not medieval.
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Long hair indeed but no great kilts. They were not invented till the early 1600’s. They are wearing Léinte.
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Hi Andrew, just some comments on clothing: 13th c hose did have integral feet. They were in fact long cloth stockings. Ample evidence from archaeological digs, a.o. London. Men and women wore linen camises or shirts, which were a little shorter and wider than the cotte/roc/leine (f: kirtle), made of wool, which was the second layer of clothing. There is no evidence for women wearing (linen) braies before the middle to late 14th c.
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Interesting article. I like Stewart Lee’s analysis of the film….
I wonder if you’ll have a look at the new Macbeth film – odd, in a way, because I suppose it’s Shakespeare’s early 17th century way of looking back: his intention was drama, and perhaps with not much regard for historical fact – but in making the film, are they concerned about getting ‘medieval’ Alba ‘correct’?
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One of the challenges of reviewing a Shakespeare movie is that they are an intersection of the period the play is set in, Shakespeare’s own period, and the period the director decides to set the film in. That makes sorting out the various pieces quite a challenge sometimes. Gibson’s Hamlet, for example is a strange mishmash of periods based on things like the wall-hangings, the costumes, and the props. I find it hard to say anything interesting about that without it looking like just nit-picking.
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Some Patriots in the US WoI did wear Indian war paint. Remember the Boston Tea Party?
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Indeed, and that was to make a political statement about political freedom (not to disguise themselves). But they didn’t wear it in battle.
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This article was really interesting and educational! As I was watching the movie for the first time, I couldn’t overlook the ridiculous hair, and now I know why haha
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Glad you liked it!
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Depends what you call 13th century Scotsmen. Most of Mr Bravehearts army were Highlanders and Irish mercenaries. Both wore the Léine and Brat.
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First, does the author even know what a mullet is? Apparently not. A mullet is short in front and long in the back only. The hair Mel had in the movie, as well as the other “hippies”, “bikers”, and “druggies” in the film is long throughout.
Sounds like the author has a stick in his butt with guys with long hair. As a man with long hair myself, I just wanted to point out, its his butt. He can put a stick up it if he wants, but life would be more comfortable if he choose to remove it.
My hair is my soul, my energy, and my spirit. If it offends the author so much that he considers me a hippie, biker, or druggie, simply because of my hair, he is too narrow minded to give any concern to his position.
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I have no idea why you think I disapprove of long hair. It’s not historically accurate for medieval Scotland, but that doesn’t mean there’s anything inherently wrong with long hair. I wore my hair quite long through the 90s.
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So far, nothing anyone has said has made me any more inclined to see that POS that I did before. I particularly liked your comments about perceptions of history and choices made by the production people. If you haven’t already, you might want to post this article to Frock Flicks, as it resonated with a lot of the discussion about Outlander. If you haven’t already done so, you might want to read George Macdonald Fraser’s “Hollywood History of the World,” which pretty much confirms your viewpoint, and his “The Steel Bonnets,” a history of the wars on the Scottish Borders.
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I love FrockFlicks–my brother actually knows the women who write it. Next time I’m out visiting him, I’m gonna try to do a joint film watch with them.
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Though woad was indeed far outdated, as you stated, it could be explained that Wallace was deliberately invoking an ancient custom for shock and awe…like a professional wrestler wearing face paint. If course, you then run into a different issue of historical accuracy, but at least it would make a bit more sense from a story telling standpoint.
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I think you’re stretching a long way to justify a silly make-up choice.
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Except for the fact that Wallace’s helmet would have covered his face.
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The Picts were a pagan people, and there is no way that a 13th C Scottish Christian nobleman would have been seen appropriating or validating pre christian, pagan practices.
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Indeed.
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Another point the author didn’t cover was with regards to the arrangement of the. phillamooar (Great Kilt). Anyone who knows anything about the Great kilt will know it was basically a blanket laid in a rectangle with the widest part running along the length (and beyond) of a belt which was then pleated up to roughly the length of the belt (allowing for an overlapping flat apron across the front) with a small section below the belt roughly the size of a phillabeg (little kilt) and the majority of the plaid above the belt. This was then donned by the wearer and the top half pinned up to the shoulder or over it using a variety of different fashions too numerous to go into here. The phillabeg is basically the bottom half of the Breacanphilla (Belted kilted plaid) with the pleats stitched in.
What the. Costume designer on Braveheart basically did was instead of laying a plaid out like this they essentially instead extended the flat overlapping apron into a much longer strip of material which was then flung from the front backwards over the shoulder to form a narrow cloak rather like a fly plaid and essentially producing something more resembling a tartan toga united with a split skirt with pleats rather than any true representation of a Great Plaid.
With regards to the belted plaid the earliest documented reference was to highlanders wearing their ‘mantles’ (cloaks) belted above their leine – the implication being that the plaid was evolved from the cloaks of wool worn with the leine. This reference was sometime aroung 1500. Now ok that does leave the potential that it was done for an undefined period before and not documented and the practice of belting the cloak could have been done at any point it was expedient to do so throughout history without the intention to form a belted plaid being the primary objective.
But even allowing for the wish for Mel Gibson demanding to have Scots in tartan kilts the costume designer should have at least taken the time to represent the innacurate for the period garnment which Gibson had demanded as accurately as possible instead of the pleated split skirt toga which was portrayed…
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Yes. Kilts are way more complex as garments than most people think. I didn’t go into the details because, as you demonstrate, it’s complex and a bit hard to visualize. But thanks for the rundown!
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Yep… what Gibson wore was not a great kilt. It was essetially an elongated phillabaeg. There’s a company that sells Braveheart style kilts, and they are 30″ by 6 or so yards long. They also sell belted plaids, which are 58-60″ by about 4-5 yards.
What I’d be interested to know is if there is any evidence (from the 1600s – 1700s obviously, not from the 13th C) that anyone wore this extended phillabaeg? I’m thinking not – that it was either a little kilt with or without a fly, or a belted plaid, but would be interested if anyone has any different thoughts.
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What the hell was Gibsons Wallace doing in a kilt at ALL?
Wallace was a LOWLANDER and the lowlanders always dressed like brits.
Only the highlanders wore the kilt untill after repeal of the Highland Dress act.
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Apparently, Gibson just decided that Scots had to wear kilts, even if made no sense. Sigh
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The props were pretty crappy as well! William Wallace would most certainly NOT fought with a hand and a half sword or a claimore (sp)! I’m not exactly sure but I have always heard that his sword would be closer to a roman broadsword. Thanks for the article. I enjoyed your candid commentary. I am a Wallace on my mothers side and really resent the way that Gibson depicted Wallace.
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I’ve got a post about the Wallace Sword.
If you need to blame someone, make sure to include Randall Wallace. He wrote the script and a lot of the film’s depiction is due to him
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Thank you for this article! Something that came to mind for me is that the average North American is largely uneducated about Medieval Scotland. Since most of us associate the Scots with tartans, this may also be why they were used as a way of easily identifying them. As for the blue faces, well who knows? I do know that films done in this fashion also tend to skew our knowledge about such things, thereby maintaining our ignorance which is a shame. Thank goodness you’ve provided clarity. I do appreciate this information very much!
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“There’s absolutely no evidence that medieval Scotmen wore their hair long (which would probably have struck contemporaries as a very feminine style), nor is there evidence that they braided their hair or tied things into it. And even if they did wear their hair long, they certainly would have combed it.”
The 13th century depictions of European Kings that I have seen in 13th century pictures, statues, and seals indicates that most 13th European kings wore their hair longish or long, down to their jaws or to their shoulders, and curly enough to suppose that instead of combing it they artificially curled it.
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Here’s a link to a late medieval image of Alexander III’s coronation. You’ll note he does not appear to have long hair. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Alexander_III_of_Scotland#/media/File:Alexander_III_and_Ollamh_R%C3%ADgh.JPG
Here’s David II, also with short hair. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/David_II_of_Scotland#/media/File:David_Bruce,_king_of_Scotland,_acknowledges_Edward_III_as_his_feudal_lord.jpg
Here’s Alexander II: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Alexander_II_of_Scotland#/media/File:Alexander_II_(Alba)_i.JPG
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The first two are earlu 15th c miniatures of 13th and 14th c scenes, and the last one is a victorian rendering of a seal. Not very trustworthy sources for contemporary looks, Andrew. Late 13th c elite men tended to wear their hair longish, with a bob. Fighting men wore it shorter and the common man, depending on the availability of barbers, every once in awhile cut their’s very short and let it grow until it began to be in the way. Al least, that’s what was happening on the continent, the north eastern part.
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You just struck a nerve. I get so tired of seeing historical and fantasy films where the men all look as of they stuck their heads in crankcase oil and hit it with an egg-beater. Since combs are one of the most common artefacts found at dig sites, it seems far more likely that there would be some semblance of tidyness.
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Proper grooming is almost always a factor in most societies, although exactly what proper grooming looks like varies.
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Kudos to all of the above clarification. The movie drove me mad for all of the reasons already mentioned, however, I have not read any mention of the other area that was so wrong. I am fairly certain that 13th Century Scots knew what a wash cloth and water was. They do this with historical films about Native Americans as well. I am half Scottish and half Native American so this really irks me. To depict a race as dirty is demoralizing.
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Of note, the native americans who befreinded the puritans washed, the puritans didnt.
The natives had a habit of taking a dip in the creek every day or two.
The puritans didnt and you could smell them for miles.
Then the puritans had the nerve to call the natives dirty.
he puritans also slaughtered the native band that befreinded them about 10 or 20 years after the famous Thanksgiving feast, but thats another story.
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Actually, that’s not true. Cleanliness was a very important principle for Puritans both in England and New England. Puritan theologians argued that because the body was made in the image of God, it was important to keep it clean. Dirt was a symbol of spiritual uncleanliness. Typically, they did a full bath either on Sat or Sun, in preparation for Sunday worship. The rest of the week, they made do with sponge-baths and spot-cleaning. So they probably weren’t as clean as 21st century Americans, but then no one on the planet is as obsessed with daily hygiene as modern Americans.
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In relation to attire, I think you didn’t touch up enough on for example armour. While in my opinion I saw some good (what appeared to be brigandine…if not both cheaply designed and too late period.) and some weirdness.
I think you also didn’t devote enough attention to the English attire throughout the film…or the generic ‘medieval movie’ peasant outfits seen in the earlier parts of the film in scotland. Something about the costume design in this film leads me to believe very little effort was put in…I know little about costume design but to me it looked like a mix-match of generic ‘medieval’ fantasy gear they had lying around apart from a few specific pieces like the Kilts.
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Those are reasonable criticisms. Armor is a very complex subject, so I usually shy away from it unless it’s something really egregious.
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Movies are made to entertain. Period period. If you expect more then that you will always be disappointed. Bravehart is much closer to the fantasy genre then historical. So forget about accuracy and enjoy the movie.
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Except that this doesn’t stop movies from educating people incorrectly and shaping the way we think about the past. There’s no such thing as ‘just a movie’
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I am of Scottish heritage and wanted to have made/or purchase a Scottish/Celtic dress relating to the medieval period. (Unfortunately a small budget). Having read the comments regarding styles, materials etc. I am now a little unsure what it is exactly that I should wear\purchase. I would like to be historically correct as I hope to meet people in a new area by attending medieval events. I would appreciate any advice/assistance on this matter. Regards
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I’m not an expert on this. Are looking to dress as a commoner or a noblewoman? A common will probably wear wool or perhaps linen, whereas a noble could afford something more costly like cotton or silk. Also, the century matters. Broadly speaking, earlier clothing is less fitted and less sexually-differentiated. So decide on which class you want and which period you want. Does that help?
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Look up ” Reconstructing History ” patterns ,, for the period and location. They are the top of the line.
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Interesting.

I found a link showing what a traditional yellow dyed leine croiche would have looked like, i.e. like a long yellow toga, often worn with waterproof clothing on top and with leggings. Quite a bit different.
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The bagpipe sleeves (as the droopy sleeve is called) suggest that this is a 15th century illustration, making it about a century or so too late for Braveheart.
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The léine had droopy sleeves as you call it, since the 1400’s, the exact time is unclear. Prior to that, the léine had simple straight sleeves. The straight sleeve type was the style of léine worn by the Galloglass warriors.
gaelicattire.com
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‘Droopy’ is not the best descriptor. I just used the first word that came to mind. I realized that since the left figure in the image is playing a bagpipe, some readers might assume I was referring to some feature of the actual bagpipe, rather than the garment.
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This is a good example of the léine, the common garment of the Irish and Highlanders of Scotland. It was slipped on over the head and reached nearly to the ground. Usually a belt was wrapped around the waist and the léine pulled up through the belt to the desired length, usually around the knee. This is a rare image showing the léine at full length. Once the garment is shortened to knee length, the skirt area influenced the later kilt.
gaelicattire.com
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The following is a copy and paste from a click-bait site re famous wardrobe malfunctions, most not sexy at all (the site’s trend-chaser. yeah, I know. http://www.trend-chaser.com/entertainment/movie-costumes-that-got-it-wrong/4/ ).
But this copy and paste re Braveheart’s on point:
“Men Who Wear Kilts
It is perfectly fine for men to wear kilts. Some may even prefer it. In the movie Braveheart, William Wallace (played by Mel Gibson) rocked the popular Scotish clothing choice with no shame. In the film, he was living around the year 1300. Unfortunately, kilts were not worn in Scotland until the 16th century. In fact, historical researchers have determined that Scots in Medieval times fought battles wearing clothing very different than kilts. Instead, they sported tunics that were dyed bright yellow with – get this – horse urine! The shirts were called “leine croich” and were frequently worn with deerskin vests.”
(I won’t defend what I’ve pasted here as I don’t know any better.)
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Thanks very much for the clarification . At the time the movie came out I thought it was all wrong but didn’t have facts to back me up !
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It’s a dirty job, but someone’s got to do it.
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I’m procrastinating here, but thought I’d point out some popular misconceptions in your article, and only because you care about history and trying to learn what you can about life in ancient times, and in getting it right (the theme of your article.)
1st: Celt and Celtic is a misnomer, there is no evidence that any people named the Celts or anything else moved en masse to the British Isles at any time in the 1st millennium B.C. Styles and technology spread, but the thinking 100 years ago that such had to be brought to Britain and Ireland by invaders who settled and took over rather than through trade or cultual exchange would be like saying 1000s of years from now that ‘the TV people’ came here in the 1950s and we know this because we found the TVs that they brought with them. You write that “some scholars have seen [the Picts] as a branch of the Celtic peoples, while others feel they are the indigenous, non-Celtic peoples.” ?? What scholars believe in the Celtic migration theory today? (There are plenty of summaries of Scottish or British history that parrot on-line that parrot this myth, but check for any reference to evidence.) I expect this to become common knowledge (someday), but at least once in the National museum in Dublin I mentioned this to a couple of security guards working there who said “yeah, we should change the written descriptions” (of the artifacts to delete Celt and Celtic). That was in 2010, maybe they’ve made the changes since? There’s no issue I know of with our use of Gael, Gaelic, ancient Briton, Pict, etc. https://www.irishtimes.com/opinion/celtic-invasion-is-pure-mythology-1.1263506
2nd: There’s a theory, a fairly new one I think, that I heard or read about when I was touring Kilmartin in 2013 that the Gaels of the Western Isles don’t in fact descend from Irish immigrants or conquerors, but are indigenous as well. The distance between Northern Island and the westernmost Scottish isles is less than that between many of the islands themselves. Ireland is just one end in the sea-route, more of a hop-skip, between or across the western isles. I don’t know much more about this theory than that.
3rd: You write “We’re dealing with 13th century Scotsmen, who are descended from a people who displaced, conquered and completely absorbed the Picts.” This is a finer point, but the Picts were the dominant culture in the late 700s well after the time of Columba and the “arrival” of the Gaels (again, if they did arrive en masse in the mid 1st millenium, rather than descend from more indigenous folk). The Picts had been victorious in battles with the Gaels in fact, and were clearly in power in most of what is today Scotland. They had become accepting of Christianity and were becoming increasingly literate (although the Gaels had come to Christianity and literacy earlier), and seemed to have it going on until the Vikings showed up. For almost the length of the 8th century, the Vikings settled all around Scotland and it might be much more than coincidence that after whatever they were up to in Pictish territory (again for @ a century!), the Picts seemed to lay down for the Gaels or the ‘Scotti’ as they were also known. Any Viking inclination to exterminate the Pictish locals, or more specifically the Pictish men, in significant numbers might explain how the Gaelic language and possibly Gaelic culture spread across Pictish territory with such success. The theory that the Picts had been just that badly fucked over by the Vikings is a bit speculative but seems to fit all the timeframes. (I’ve never read this as an explicit theory as to the fate of the Picts, but I’m sure if I continue to procrastinate and google search a bit after I post this, I’ll find that some historian has served it up on a plate.)
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Your first point is debatable.
It’s unlikely that the entire population of the British Isles abandoned their language, culture, and customs and adopted that of their neighbours because of a few traders. Comparing en masse cultural transfer in the dark ages of the 1st millennium BC to the transfer of material goods (TVs) in the 20th century is stretching credibility. No doubt the invading Celts were an elite minority within the British Isles but nonetheless, there’s likely to have been significant numbers of them much like the later Anglo-Saxons. There are very limited, if any, historical examples of an entire ethnicity switching their linguistic and cultural trappings unless conquest or significant migration was the catalyst. I guess it comes down to what you define as en masse. At least a few ten thousand Normans occupied England and over several centuries were unable to supplant English language and culture and theirs was with a far more advanced political, military and administrative machine than that of the tribal Celts.
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Please, let’s debate my ‘debatable point’ re the myth of Celtic migration to the British Isles. In any such debate I get to ask you to provide evidence of this migration or invasion. Where and what is it? You write that “it’s unlikely that the entire population of the British Isles abandoned their language, culture, and customs, and adopted that of their neighbours because of a few traders.” Too true, as in fact it didn’t happen. Language? Ancient Brythonic is certainly Indo-European, but where is the evidence that it arrived with these “Celts” from the mainland as recently (relative to British prehistory) as the early 1st millenium BC? “Culture and customs” is easier still. “When it comes to the contentious subject of the Druids there are few simple answers.
People who have proclaimed themselves to be experts on the Druids, or even to be Druids themselves can barely agree about anything.” http://www.stonehenge-druids.org/druids.html What evidence if any at all can you cite to say that ancient Brits abandoned their culture and customs when newcomers arrived at any point before the Romans showed up? Myself, I see a continuity between the concepts between the most, or one of the most, sacred or religiously significant events in the calendar for the “Celts” of ancient Ireland, if not Britain as well, Samhain, the original Halloween, and the cosmology that seems to lie at the source of the architecture in the sacred landscape at ‘Mainland’ in the Orkneys (the most sacred place in Northern Europe in the 3rd millenium BC, the Vatican of Northern Europe) and of which Stonehenge and nearby Woodhenge were derivative. Samhain was a time out of time, the night that began after sunset on the last day of the calendar year, a,d continued until the sun rose the next day heralding the new year. This time out of time was when residents in the world of the living and those in the world of the dead and of the spirits could meet, intermingle, and commune. I think this is more or less common knowledge today for anyone with an interest in history. But the sacred landscape at Orkney presents the Standing stones of Stenness (one of the earliest stone circles), with what appear to be ceremonial hearths, and archaeologists now believe this site would have represented the ‘land of the living’ to pilgrims, at one end, or just across a brief gap at one end, of a long narrow isthmus dividing a freshwater lake from a saltwater bay, on which has been found, and is currently being excavated, the Ness of Brodgar (the greatest archaeological dig in Europe today), a temple complex surrounded by a large wall which takes up the width of the isthmus at its midst. Neolithic pilgrims would have walked through those temples and navigated the complex before continuing on to the ‘land of the dead’, the site of the more recent but larger ‘Ring of Brodgar’, surrounded by ancient tombs. It is believed that traversing the isthmus involved a voyage for the Neolithic faithful from the land of the living to the land of the dead, the spirits, the ancestors. It sounds almost like a physical manifestation of Samhain, and Stonehenge and Woodhenge, which postdates the complex, is derivative of the Orkney complex. Archaeologists believe now that ancient pilgrims would also walk from one henge to the other, on a boat too part of the way. Neil Oliver said in one BBC special that the ‘Ness of Brodgar’ excavations are turning the map of Britain on its head, “the heartland’s at the other end”. So! There’s at least evidence of what might be some real continuity between the basis of Neolithic sacred architecture and the cosmology of the much later “Celtic” Samhain. What evidence is there that you know of that newcomers from the European continent were the source of anything Druidic? It’s true that artistic styles and technology spread with trade, but where was there an “abandon[ment of] culture and customs”? Where is the evidence of “en masse cultural transfer”? You write that “there are very limited, if any, historical examples of an entire ethnicity switching their linguistic and cultural trappings unless conquest or significant migration was the catalyst.” Again, where is the evidence of
“an entire ethnicity switching their linguistic and cultural trappings”? I don’t agree btw, that the Normans supplanted English language and culture (although they certainly changed the language and culture, greatly increasing the lexicon), but in arguing against you on that point I support your main point. Again, please consider the evidence on which this arrival or invasion by the Celts is based. What is it? Artistic styles and fashion and technology move to the Isles from the continent with trade, etc., but wouldn’t you expect that? Wouldn’t it seem strange if that didn’t happen? I look forward to the evidence.
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Brian Sykes, Britains leading dna expert will confirm to you that the majority of people within the British Isles share a common Celtic dna and are similar to the Celts of Iberia. This dna is different from Roman, English, Viking etc. The Picts are Celtic…end of. Again, check out Sykes.
Your disparaging use of the words Celt and Celtic has to be addressed. These words were used by the Roman as Celtoi to describe the pre-Roman tribes of Britain and they regarded them as having a commonality. In otherwords, a loose ethnic grouping.
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Could you please read what I wrote, or at least part of it?? Your statement that “the majority of people within the British Isles share a common Celtic DNA and are similar to the Celts of Iberia” SUPPORTS my point, as the Celts were a tribe or society in central and eastern Europe in the Roman era. The Greeks referred to them as ‘Keltoi’. You write that Celt and Celtic “were used by the Roman as Celtoi to describe the pre-Roman tribes of Britain…” You made that up. What’s the source of this information? You write that my “disparaging use of the words Celt and Celtic has to be addressed.” Is it disparaging to ancient Celts to say that the ancient Britons weren’t Celts? That the Gaels and the Picts and their immediate neighbours weren’t Celts? Here’s a link to a BBC site in which one Dr. Simon James makes my point.
http://www.bbc.co.uk/history/ancient/british_prehistory/peoples_01.shtml A copy and paste of the relevant bits:
” Before Rome: the ‘Celts’.
At the end of the Iron Age (roughly the last 700 years BC), we get our first eye-witness accounts of Britain from Greco-Roman authors, not least Julius Caesar who invaded in 55 and 54 BC. These reveal a mosaic of named peoples (Trinovantes, Silures, Cornovii, Selgovae, etc), but there is little sign such groups had any sense of collective identity any more than the islanders of AD 1000 all considered themselves ‘Britons’. However, there is one thing that the Romans, modern archaeologists and the Iron Age islanders themselves would all agree on: they were not Celts. This was an invention of the 18th century; the name was not used earlier. The idea came from the discovery around 1700 that the non-English island tongues relate to that of the ancient continental Gauls, who really were called Celts. This ancient continental ethnic label was applied to the wider family of languages. But ‘Celtic’ was soon extended to describe insular monuments, art, culture and peoples, ancient and modern: island ‘Celtic’ identity was born, like Britishness, in the 18th century. However, language does not determine ethnicity (that would make the modern islanders ‘Germans’, since they mostly speak English, classified as a Germanic tongue). And anyway, no one knows how or when the languages that we choose to call ‘Celtic’, arrived in the archipelago – they were already long established and had diversified into several tongues, when our evidence begins. Certainly, there is no reason to link the coming of ‘Celtic’ language with any great ‘Celtic invasions’ from Europe during the Iron Age, because there is no hard evidence to suggest there were any. Archaeologists widely agree on two things about the British Iron Age: its many regional cultures grew out of the preceding local Bronze Age, and did not derive from waves of continental ‘Celtic’ invaders. And secondly, calling the British Iron Age ‘Celtic’ is so misleading that it is best abandoned.” Thank you Dr. James. Try to read what I wrote in my comments above and see if my points aren’t supported here.
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The vikings never settled in any pict territory. They literally settled in the outer hebrides which was Gael and displaced or absorbed them. Lack of Burial sites, mainland settlements and modern DNA would show that theory of Viking and Gael impact on Picts lacking unless they all met on the shore to get killed and the Gaels were completely unharmed and took over mainland scottish territory. Which there no evidence of. What’s more likely is religion and a more developed language spreading their culture.
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I’ve just read this response for the 1st time (the only one on this point since 2017). (I included the link to this blog in a ‘description’ to a photo in my photostream on Flickr some time ago here: https://www.flickr.com/photos/97924400@N00/27281305379/in/photostream/ . So there’s an ease of reference and I’ve . I haven’t yet found a blog for ancient Brtiish prehistory, which is a blessing as I’m often behind with things and British and Irish prehistory is a rabbit hole.)
The VIkings DID settle in Pict territory, including in Caithness and Sutherland for a spell which they at least held or ruled, and permanently in the Orkneys and Shetlands which they colonized. (I haven’t read that the Orkneys or Shetlands were Gael.) “Thorfinn Sigurdsson’s rule in the 11th century included expansion well into north mainland Scotland and this may have been the zenith of Scandinavian influence. The obliteration of pre-Norse names in the Hebrides and Northern Isles, and their replacement with Norse ones was almost total although the emergence of alliances with the native Gaelic speakers produced a powerful Norse-Gael culture that had wide influence in Argyll, Galloway and beyond.” (wikipedia) But I was wrong to write in 2017 that they had “settled all around Scotland.” Why the Picts (who had it going on in the late 600s and 700s, defeating the powerful Angles at Dun Nechtain in 685, and in fact defeating the Gaels in the 700s) would lay down for the Gaelic Scotti culturally and linguistically, accepting Gaelic as their lingua franca, etc., is an interesting point for debate. Neil Oliver explores this near the end of the 1st episode of BBC’s History of Scotland and explains that it resulted with the accession of the princes (& 1st cousins) Donald II & Constantine II, Pictish by birth, taken to Ireland in their infancy, raised and sheltered there in the home of their aunt (the wife of a Gaelic king) in a Gaelic world. But the Vikings arrived in Northern Scotland (again conquering and colonizing the Shetlands and the Orkneys) in the late 700s/early 800s, and rampaged over much of the rest of Pictland, looting it and razing much of it for a spell in the 870s. They’d set up shop in the western Isles as well, but might have been more destructive in Pictland than in Argyll. Recall that those Vikings who conquered and came to rule what it is today ‘Normandy’, and became the conquering ‘Normans’ were from the Orkneys. Could the Picts have been so demoralized and depopulated that they lay down so to speak for the Gaels, the old devil they knew, after receiving so much abuse from their new neighbours, the Berserkers, to the north? (The extent of their colonization of the north might be academic as the Orkneys were a stronghold and a base for their raids.) If they didn’t play a significant part in the demise of the Pictish language, etc.,
the timing of the period of their raiding in Pictland is VERY coincidental.
The Gaels in Argyll were victims of the Vikings as well, but the onslaught in the southwest might not have been as relentless as in Pictland (although Vikings from Dublin devastated the Britons in 870, forcing them to abandon Dumbarton and move north to Govan). A Gaelic refugee, Giric, was able to assassinate the Pictish king Aed (younger son of the legendary Kenneth MacAlpin) and take over in or after the turmoil, which I think might be saying something.
St. Patrick had made an interesting and possibly telling written reference to “apostate Scots and Picts”. According to Wikipedia: “Christianity was probably introduced to what is now Lowland Scotland by Roman soldiers stationed in the north of the province of Britannia. After the collapse of Roman authority in the early 5th century, Christianity is presumed to have survived among the British enclaves in the south of what is now Scotland, but retreated as the pagan Anglo-Saxons advanced.” The entry (‘Christianisation of Scotland’) also refers to “the reconversion of Scandinavian Scotland in the 10th century”. Re Columba: “Traditional narratives depict Scotland as largely converted by Irish missions associated with figures such as St. Columba, from the 5th to the 7th centuries, but many of these figures were later constructs or founded monasteries and collegiate churches in areas to which Christianity had already spread.” This could be a good example of ‘history being written or rewritten by the winners’. Gaelic cultural ascendance in ‘Scotland’ might have led to the preservation of Gaelic narratives and the suppression or loss of the Pictish.
It’s all nicely complex, and shows how cosmopolitan Scotland was, or at least became, having been cobbled together from what were at least 5 countries at one time (incl. the British territory @ Dumbarton, a piece of what was once Anglo Northumbria in the SE, and the Norse conquests in the north and N.W.)
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good shit
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so the opinions of the Romans was wrong? Good on you. The Romans, as I said before, regarded the ancient tribes on the British mainland as being more or less the same and sharing a commonality. Whether you want to use the word Celt or not is up to you but the Romans were happy enough to use it. I suppose the many historical manuscripts that tell of Celtic tribes arriving in Britain are also wrong. Thirdly and lastly, if Brian Sykes could find a commonality between ancient DNA in Britain and in Iberia….what people are we talking about when they were both well known Celtic lands. The term Celtic is indeed ancient and found as Celtoi…but you seem to ignore that.
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you are now saying the Irish are not Celts…what is your evidence? Also, the further back in time you go the more scientific the link between culture and language becomes. The early tribes you mention all have Gaelic associated words but no English/Anglo-Saxon/Germanic associations…Trinovantes (tréan ‘strong ones), Silures (síol ‘seed/progeny), Cornovii (corn ‘horn’ – as in Cornwall), Selgovae (sealbhach ‘having possessions’ and probably gobh ‘a smith’). None of the early tribes in Britain have a Germanic root. If not Celtic then what? And what is your evidence?
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You’re not reading what I’ve written, and you’ve made some things up, so I won’t respond after this post and you can have the last word. You write “[w]hether you want to use the word Celt or not is up to you but the Romans were happy enough to use it.” What’s your source?? The Romans never referred to ancient Brits as Celts or Celtoi, etc. (nor as Brits). You then write “I suppose the many historical manuscripts that tell of Celtic tribes arriving in Britain are also wrong.” Such ‘historical manuscripts’ that tell of “Celtic tribes arriving in Britain” are either non-existent, or are less than 300 years old and are based on conjecture, as per Dr. James article in the link. I haven’t read Sykes, but the British isles were not “well known Celtic lands.” And I didn’t say the early tribes had Germanic roots. Of course there was movement of peoples and languages. Gaelic and Welsh are Indo-European, as are the Germanic and Romance languages. Basque (which is Fascinating!) is not, it’s unique and seems to be a relic of an ancient time before the spread of Indo-European. But to say that Gaelic and Welsh aren’t Germanic (which of course they’re not) and therefore must be Celtic makes no sense. Again, you can have the last word, as you’re not reading what I’ve written or, and more likely, you’re just having fun here playing at being obtuse.
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It is you who are not taking note. The Romans did indeed use the word Keltoi which they got from the Greeks, so this blows your ‘revisionist’ argument. You obviously have an agenda in there. The ancient manuscriptal histories of Ireland and Britain mention the Celtic people. As an example, the Historum Scotorum was written a lot more than 300 years ago. You come out arguing, I mention Dr Sykes and you dont even bother reading him…the most eminent DNA expert in Britain…nuff said!
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I wrote that the last word would be yours but I should respond to your aspersion cast re my “obvious agenda”. Would you say that the other posters writing about kilts in the days of Wallace (I defer to anyone who posted on that subject) or as to any point re the early history or prehistory of Scotland have an agenda? In my first post from December, 2017 this point re the myth of the Celtic invasion was one of 3 that I’d made on the subject of the early history of the peoples of Scotland, specifically re some myths or questions re that early history or prehistory. I find ancient history fascinating, and I might have thought I could learn something from a response to my post. But responding to aspersions and b.s. repeated without quotes from sources is odious, so it would be kind if you’d oblige with quotes from sources.
– Here’s more grist for your last word: Again the Romans did use the work Keltoi, but NOT in any description of peoples in the British Isles. It’s simple, I’ve written it several times. What’s your agenda in feigning confusion on that point? Why won’t you respond to the quote from the article by Dr. James?
– You write that “the ancient manuscriptal [sic] histories of Ireland and Britain mention the Celtic peoples.” That’s just not true. If I’m wrong, please provide a quote and edify me. The truth is that there’s no use of the word Celt or Celtic in any “ancient manuscripts” or written histories that pertain to Ireland or Britain, including the ‘Chronicum Scotorum’ (ie. your “Historum Scotorum”?). Why lie about that? What’s your agenda?
– Anything Sykes or other geneticists have to say is irrelevant to this question. Whether or not the people of the British Isles have more or less in common genetically with the Spanish or other Europeans is evidence of movement of peoples, but not of WHEN they moved, ie. whether they descend from “Celts” who invaded or moved to the Isles in the Iron age, or from peoples who arrived earlier, or much earlier. “Nuff said!”
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This blog is about as full of half truth bullshit as Gibson movie, The idea that highland scots and native Irish didnt wear tartans is a total lie, its probably true they didn’t wear then like twits in women’s dresses in the English style but the patterned tartan as a textile and a garment was wide spread. Not only in Ireland and Scotland but was exported across western medieval europe to make the very generic European style this blogger references. In fact the highland kilt Gibson and his highland band are seen in are actually a type of crochless braies made out of a picnic sized tartan clock wrapped, draped, pined and belted over the very same long knee high tunic the blogger describes which Gibson and the rest are all wearing. Also suggesting picts where any less Celt then the Scots is just ignorant and asinine. What is more blue body paint was commonly known in Celtic cultures especially warrior from Spain (the original source of western Brit Celts) up to BC Britain though it is true this was mostly a pagan era practice but if any one was still doing it by this period it would have been these last isolated fringe Celtic societies of native Irish and Scottish highlanders
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To take your points one at a time: 1) What is your evidence that use of tartan was “widespread” in the 14th century? There is no archaeological evidence to support it, and I know of no illustrations that demonstrate it, but I’m willing to be proven wrong. But an assertion doesn’t make something a fact.
2) The ancestry of the Picts is still, so far as I am aware, a matter of debate among scholars, although it’s not a topic I’ve kept on on since I finished grad school about 20 years ago. If you know of any scholarship that definitively proves that the Picts were Celtic, feel free to cite it. However, you seem to be under the impression that the Celtics were a monolithic culture instead of a rather loosely-related set of cultures. To argue that the fact that the Spanish Celts used blue body paint (and again, citation for that fact, please) means that the Picts must also have used it is as reliable as saying that because Australians consume large quantities of vegemite that Americans must also do the same. And to argue from the use by ancient Celts to the use by 14th century Scots is simply wrong. There is NO evidence that 14th century Scots painted their faces.
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I’m repeating what I wrote in response to Proinsias Mag Fhionnghaile above who seems to have the same mysterious source of information as Reality here, but again I’ll just include a copy and paste the relevant bits from a write-up by Dr. Simon James on this BBC site http://www.bbc.co.uk/history/ancient/british_prehistory/peoples_01.shtml
“Before Rome: the ‘Celts’ –
At the end of the Iron Age (roughly the last 700 years BC), we get our first eye-witness accounts of Britain from Greco-Roman authors, not least Julius Caesar who invaded in 55 and 54 BC. These reveal a mosaic of named peoples (Trinovantes, Silures, Cornovii, Selgovae, etc), but there is little sign such groups had any sense of collective identity any more than the islanders of AD 1000 all considered themselves ‘Britons’. However, there is one thing that the Romans, modern archaeologists and the Iron Age islanders themselves would all agree on: they were not Celts. This was an invention of the 18th century; the name was not used earlier. The idea came from the discovery around 1700 that the non-English island tongues relate to that of the ancient continental Gauls, who really were called Celts. This ancient continental ethnic label was applied to the wider family of languages. But ‘Celtic’ was soon extended to describe insular monuments, art, culture and peoples, ancient and modern: island ‘Celtic’ identity was born, like Britishness, in the 18th century.
However, language does not determine ethnicity (that would make the modern islanders ‘Germans’, since they mostly speak English, classified as a Germanic tongue). And anyway, no one knows how or when the languages that we choose to call ‘Celtic’, arrived in the archipelago – they were already long established and had diversified into several tongues, when our evidence begins. Certainly, there is no reason to link the coming of ‘Celtic’ language with any great ‘Celtic invasions’ from Europe during the Iron Age, because there is no hard evidence to suggest there were any. [It might be more accurate to say “there is no evidence to suggest there were any”, but I take it Dr. James is being careful here.]
Archaeologists widely agree on two things about the British Iron Age: its many regional cultures grew out of the preceding local Bronze Age, and did not derive from waves of continental ‘Celtic’ invaders. And secondly, calling the British Iron Age ‘Celtic’ is so misleading that it is best abandoned. Of course, there are important cultural similarities and connections between Britain, Ireland and continental Europe, reflecting intimate contacts and undoubtedly the movement of some people, but the same could be said for many other periods of history.” I would say “just about ANY other period of history.”
I think the ties, influence, and connections between the ancient residents of what is today Great Britian and those of France and Spain should be evident in the great stone circles at Carnac and elsewhere on the mainland. In fact, the grand Menhir, 20 m.s high, 355 tons, MUST have been so impressive, it must have been a draw to people from far and wide, and could only have been produced by a dominant people or community within a wider, greater society, maybe even an ancient civilization. (The only people who didn’t have writiing who anthropologists have agreed were undoubtedly civilized were the Inca, in light of the complexity of their society and government and the great size of their empire, the Tahuantinsuyu. But who’s to say that if we could visit the Neolithic lands of Britain and northern France and Spain, that we wouldn’t find a society as equally complex, maybe even an empire [not to say that i approve of empire.] ) As for any similarities in language between the peoples of ancient France or Spain and ancient Britain, we know that languages spread for different reasons. Sometimes a language will move with a movement of peoples as seen with the arrival of the Slavs in what are today the Balkans from points further east, or with Hungarian brought to Hungary in the Magyar migration in the Honfloglalas in the 800s from @ the Kiev area (the Magyars might have been refugees avoiding the Vikings who arrived in Novgorod and Kiev @ that time). Sometimes a language becomes dominant as a lingua franca, one the locals have to learn as the language of a ruling group from a neighbouring region, or even one further away (such as Latin from Rome), for purposes of trade and communication with officials, etc.. As everyone within an ’empire’ eventually learns this dominant language, it becomes the one to use in speaking with people at some distance from their home. The languages that result are often creoles, a mix of the dominant ‘imperial’ language and that of the locals. This was the case in Britain with the influx of French, but wasn’t the case at all with ancient British and Anglo-Saxon (which might speak to the chauvinism and the level of dominance of the Anglo-Saxon tribes relative to the local native Britons). Every situation is different. Today Romanians consider that they descend from Roman soldiers who moved to Romani because their language derives from Latin, but the truth is that they descend primarily from people with deeper roots in the country such as Dacians who adopted the dominant lingua franca and gradually lost their own native tongues, which were less useful, a process which continues and is ongoing today with the gradual loss of indigenous languages all around the world, as sad as that is.
One last point to make to clarify that I believe as well, in fact I know, that there were close ties in the late 1st millenium BC between the peoples of ancient Britain and France is that those regions shared a religion: Druidism. While Britain was considered to be something of a wellspring of Druidic culture and religion, it was practised in both Britain and France. In fact, Chartres was once a Druidic cult site.
https://www.labyrinthdesigners.org/alchemy-mystery/archaeological-studies-on-the-crypt-well-in-chartres/ (Btw, there were no Druids in Germany or elsewhere in Europe, only in the British isles and France). So I’m not arguing that Britain was in any way isolated and that its culture and language etc. was wholly or even primarily home-grown. I’m just pointing out that the use of Celt and Celtic is a clear misnomer when we talk about ancient Britain, and it gives a misleading idea that all that is considered ‘Celtic’ from the Iron Age was imported, when in fact there was continuity with the Bronze Age, and with the people of the Neolithic who built Stonehenge, the Ness of Brodgar, etc. And besides, isn’t it more intuitive and make more sense that what you refer to as ‘Celtic’ ancient British culture (or ‘Celtic’regional cultures in Britain) in the Iron Age would have “[grown] out of the preceding LOCAL Bronze Age” (again quoting from Dr. James).?
(Again I’ve been procrastinating, back to something that I have to do that’s much less interesting.)
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how dare you. I have given my sources such as Professor Sykes. If that isnt good enough for you then who cares. The word Celt/Celtic has been in use since Roman times…but of course that again iusnt good enough for you. Beginning to wonder what is your angle.
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Hello,
Concerning your discussion of the ethnicity of the Scots, one of the consequences of the Norman conquest of England was the subsequent occupation of southern Scotland by Normans. Hence, the “Scottish” nobles, like the “English” nobles of the same period, were largely transplants from Normandy and surrounding environs (the same thing happened in Ireland). Hence, you have “Robert de Brus”. That would help account for the early acceptance of Edward I as an arbiter in the dispute over the Scottish throne, and his own demand that the Scottish king be subordinate to him.
Also, the fact is that prior to 1000 CE Scotland, like eastern England and Ireland, was invaded and settled by the Vikings. Therefore the idea that the Scots were “Celtic” is highly problematic. I am not at all arguing that a significant, maybe the majority, of Scots were primarily of Irish blood. Nevertheless, both groups must have had an enormous cultural impact on the Scots. In particular, ca. 1290-1300 the Scottish nobles, including Wallace, were likely to have lived much more like contemporary French and English nobles than anything we today think of as “Scottish.”
Yes, Braveheart was pretty laughable. I am befuddled about the prospect of the English infantry being able to raise their weapons or effectively maneuver in the armor depicted in the first illustration (scale arms and leggings?).
Thank you for the interesting discussion.
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The noblemen were indeed Norman, but their numbers were few and far between. There is little evidence for a widespread or numerous unflux of Normans settling in Scotland. The dna of the Scots is at least 50% Irish (not counting the 19th century arrivals) with Picts to the north-east and Welsh Britons to the south-west. These last two groups are Celtic and this has been proven by dna science. Brian Sykes, the most notable dna scientist in Britain concluded this many years ago. Adding up the three groups above will give a very high Celtic mix, again, not counting the modern Irish. The south-east of Scotland has a significant Anglo/Danish dna origin but still many Celts in that area. Its really is time to put the idea that the Picts are non-Celtic to bed…they are Celtic. All of their early stonework writings have direct Irish forms including the many personal names. For example, the so-called Pictish Nechtan is in Irish Neachtan. Even the very name Picts has a Welsh Celtic origin. Infact, there is some evidence to suggest that the Picts were the first Celtic tribe to inhabit the British Isles and Picts were found in Ireland too.
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Maybe the issue here is in semantics. I’m not sure what you mean when you use the word ‘Celtic’. You write that the Picts are Celtic because “[a]ll of their early stonework writings have direct Irish forms including the many personal names” which presumes that the Irish are Celtic. Again (in case you missed my response to your comment above), here’s a response from Dr. James on a BBC history site (in the link) which explains things in a more pithy manner than I could (I haven’t enough time to be brief myself).
“Before Rome: the ‘Celts’ –
At the end of the Iron Age (roughly the last 700 years BC), we get our first eye-witness accounts of Britain from Greco-Roman authors, not least Julius Caesar who invaded in 55 and 54 BC. These reveal a mosaic of named peoples (Trinovantes, Silures, Cornovii, Selgovae, etc), but there is little sign such groups had any sense of collective identity any more than the islanders of AD 1000 all considered themselves ‘Britons’.
However, there is one thing that the Romans, modern archaeologists and the Iron Age islanders themselves would all agree on: they were not Celts. This was an invention of the 18th century; the name was not used earlier. The idea came from the discovery around 1700 that the non-English island tongues relate to that of the ancient continental Gauls, who really were called Celts. This ancient continental ethnic label was applied to the wider family of languages. But ‘Celtic’ was soon extended to describe insular monuments, art, culture and peoples, ancient and modern: island ‘Celtic’ identity was born, like Britishness, in the 18th century.
However, language does not determine ethnicity (that would make the modern islanders ‘Germans’, since they mostly speak English, classified as a Germanic tongue). And anyway, no one knows how or when the languages that we choose to call ‘Celtic’, arrived in the archipelago – they were already long established and had diversified into several tongues, when our evidence begins. Certainly, there is no reason to link the coming of ‘Celtic’ language with any great ‘Celtic invasions’ from Europe during the Iron Age, because there is no hard evidence to suggest there were any. [I would say “because there is no evidence to suggest there were any” but I think Dr. James is being more careful here.]
Archaeologists widely agree on two things about the British Iron Age: its many regional cultures grew out of the preceding local Bronze Age, and did not derive from waves of continental ‘Celtic’ invaders. And secondly, calling the British Iron Age ‘Celtic’ is so misleading that it is best abandoned. Of course, there are important cultural similarities and connections between Britain, Ireland and continental Europe, reflecting intimate contacts and undoubtedly the movement of some people, but the same could be said for many other periods of history.” I would say rather for ANY period of history.
Your response should be interesting. And please cite sources for your info. when you can, thanks.
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I’d like to add that I don’t consider that (or care whether) Iron age culture in Britain is generally or even primarily ‘home-grown’. In fact I’m certain that there was a very real connection, in some ways moreso than today, to continental Europe, particularly northern France in the late Iron age up until the time of Caesar. The ancient British Isles and France shared a religion, Druidism. In fact, Chartres is known to have been a Druidic holy site with ruins found under the Cathedral. https://www.labyrinthdesigners.org/alchemy-mystery/archaeological-studies-on-the-crypt-well-in-chartres/ (Btw, Druids are not known to have lived in Germany or anywhere else in continental Europe). While Britain was considered as something or a well-spring of Druidic culture, it thrived in Gaul. In fact, I wonder if the incredible neolithic ruins at Carnac (which predate the similar stone circles in Britain), with the amazing ‘Grand Menhir’, the tallest thing erected by Europeans in the neolithic, 18.5 m.s, 280 tonnes) are evidence of a society so complex and ambitious, that they might have had an early and profound influence on ancient Britain. Today, anthropologists only give the Inca a pass as the only society without writing [although they had a record keeping system with the quipu, knots in string] which was clearly a civilization, in light of the undeniable, well-observed complexity of their society and government, and the great size of their empire, the Tahuantinsuyu. If we could visit the society in the land surrounding Carnac in the Neolithic, how likely is that we might find a society so complex and organized that they might be considered civilized. Might they have founded an empire (not that I approve of empire). Could this much earlier period have been the occasion of the spread of language from France to southern England and beyond in the British Isles?
– Language can spread for different reasons. It can move with the movement of people as it did with the movement of Slavs into the balkans from points further east in the mid-first millenium AD, or with the appearance of Hungarian in Hungary with the movement of the Magyars SW from @ the Kiev area in the Honfloglalas in the 800s. Or it can spread as a lingua franca, a dominant language from a neighbouring region or from further away (such as Latin from Rome), which the locals in a region within the sphere of its influence (e.g. within an empire) must learn to communicate with officials or to trade and converse with people from other regions within the empire or greater area. A lingua franca is often a creole, such as English with the ingestion of so many French words in the first centuries after 1066, but not at all the case with the arrival of the Anglo-Saxons in Britain, which might speak to the level of chauvinism on the part of the Germanic newcomers and their dominance of the local Britons in the 400s and 500s. Romanians today consider that they’ve descended from Roman soldiers who moved to and settled in their corner of the empire, when in fact they descend primarily from people with deeper roots such as the Dacians who might have spoken a variety of languages or dialects which they lost gradually as they simply found the lingua franca, the creole mix of part of the local lexicon with Latin, to be more useful. The same process happens all around the world today, resulting in the ongoing loss of indigenous languages, sad as that is. But every situation is different.
– We can only guess at the how and when of the spread of the ancient “Celtic” languages either from Britain to the mainland or more likely from the mainland to the Isles. But I suspect we’re discounting a much earlier, deeper prehistory, and that the ruins at Carnac and the Orkneys and Avebury and elsewhere might give some clues. But I’m presuming and guessing a fair bit. But doesn’t one statement made by Dr. James seem in his article seem intuitive, that the “many regional cultures [in Iron Age ancient Britain] grew out of the preceding local Bronze Age”? More than most, I suspect that much in Ancient British culture and religion is derivative, I just think we should try to be accurate and look at the evidence, and now that the academics have rejected the use of the word Celt and Celtic in the context of ancient Britain, and for good reason, the paradigm shift should become common knowledge and commonly accepted.
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“The dna of the Scots is at least 50% Irish“
No, they don’t. Don’t know where you got that information from. Only time I’ve seen statements like that is someone not understanding common mtDNA that’s shared with pre ice age Pyrenees people.
Gaels has little genetic impact on Scottish people. You see more genetic impact in regional areas from Saxon-Danes that settled in the south east after the end of the Dane law.
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And now 23 years later The Outlaw King may finally show us how to dress as a medieval Scotsman:
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It is to be hoped.
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It’s simply a great movie that highlights the struggles of the past, it isn’t a historically accurate documentary. I suspect we could pick faults with every movie ever made but we want to be entertained and removed from the worries of this world; rather than caught up in details that are often only speculation. Good read though!
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As I’ve said frequently, there’s no such thing as ‘just a movie’. Braveheqrt doesn’t “highlight” the struggles of the past—it makes them up.
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Gods, I know this post is 5 years old, but I stumbled across it today and… I’m sorry, the remark about tartan being an 18th-century invention isn’t just incorrect; it’s downright shocking. Tartan was very much a thing before that; there are depictions of it dating back to the 17th century, and that’s just tartan as we know it – heck, an extant example of a more primitive variety have been found and dated as 3rd century (google “Falkirk tartan” for more details). The reason I find this offensive is not because of what you said yourself, but because of how obvious it is where you got that misconception from: the Dress Act of 1746, passed as a means of stamping out the Jacobite rebellion alongside various other laws prohibiting Highland Scots from engaging in their own cultural practices, was only repealed in 1782. The idea that the Dress Act did such a thorough job of suppressing our culture that people could genuinely confuse the year we were once again allowed to wear tartan with the year it was invented, just repulses me to my core. It shows that, to some degree, the damage that George II did to Scotland may never be fully undone. It’s so sad… Alexa, play a bagpipe cover of Despacito.
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I did not claim that tartans were invented in the 18th century. (In fact I reference the ‘Falkirk tartan’, though not by name.) I said that the concept of ‘clan tartans’ was invented in the 18th century. Tartan certainly existed long before that period, but there’s no good evidence that specific tartans indicated membership or were reserved for specific clans.
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The Church decreed that men should not “be as women”, but in regards to “hair”, a medieval man with hair to his shoulders would NOT necessarily be “as a woman”. Why? Because women typically rarely cut their hair. A WOMAN’S hair went to her waist.
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Umm, no. Women did cut their hair in the Middle Ages, the way that women with longer hair do today.
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more often than not, down way past the waist, even to the ankles
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Given that most women covered their hair in public and thereby hid the length of their hair, a claim like this needs to be supported with evidence. What support do you have for your assertion?
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it was customary in many cultures, including that of Gaelic Scotland and Ireland to cover the hair only upon marriage. Before marriage the hair was worn long and visible. There are many depictions in art, stonework to show this.
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I asked you to provide evidence—an authoritative source—to support your assertion. I am skeptical that women routinely wear their hair waist-length or beyond. So just making another assertion that it’s true doesn’t persuade me.
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Firstly, can you indicate what country/culture you are talking about…and secondly, as you are the one who has put forward the notion that women did not have long hair, the onus is on you first to provide your sources.
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I suspect that the movie’s source of the single width belted plaid is the late 17thC portrait of Mungo Murray in the National Gallery of Scotland. If you study this it does indeed seem to show the wearing of a plaid of single width fabric, with a small amount of the width folded over the belt and the long excess portion wound decoratively around the wearer’s arm rather than slung over the shoulder as in the movie. So far as I’m aware this is the only early depiction of such a plaid, and we don’t know how much artistic license is involved or if this was common or a one-off. The way that the fabric is painted looks to me as the artist was accurately showing a real woven fabric, unlike some of the more impressionistic representations of tartan in the works of other artists.
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Really awesome post! Amazing writing and explaining. I must say I’m pleased. Thank you so much.
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Shakespeare’s Scottish play is so far from the truth as to be absurd. MacBeth ruled from 1040 to 1057 and was considered a good king. It was the elder Duncan who violated the rules of succession and was killed in battle by MacBeth (Bethod ad Finleag, to be accurate). Grouch (Lady MacBeth) had a claim to the throne in her own right. Shakespeare wrote to please his patron, James the VIth & 1st, who claimed descent from MceDuff.
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James was also a descendent of Banquo. Historically, Banquo was very much in Macbeth’s inner circle. Shakespeare kiolls off Banquo to ecuse him from involvementg in Macbeth’s later misdeeds, again for political reasons.
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his was probably the hottest debate ever to hit Frock Flicks and extend beyond it. Somebody mentioned two guys from Surrey who came up with so-called CLan Tartans. These were probably the same guys mentioned in other histories of tartan under the name Sobieski Stuart. As for linguistcs, there was a really great series on a few years ago called “The Adventure of English,” which traces the multitudinous roots of the language and the many sources, some of which might shed some light on this discussion. In her time, Great Elizabeth transported a lot of Scottjish rebels to the part of northern Ireland knows as The Pale, prominent among them were the Grahams. In the intro to “The Survival of Scotland”, Eric Linklater gives an excellent capsule history of the real MacBeth and the causes of the Duncan-MacBeth feud the short versions is that : one of the older kings had two sons and decreed that the succession would alternate between their two lines, The elder Duncan broke the rule and placed his son on the throne. Not only did MacBeth have a claim to the throne in his own right, so did Gruoch (the future Lady MacBeth, who divorced her current husband to marry MacBeth (Bethod od Finleagh, to name him properly) she was already at feud with Duncan, so MacBeth inherited the feud. The the Duncan he killed — in battle, BTW — was the younger Duncan, not the poor old man of Shakespeare’s play, which was written to please his new patron, James the VIth and Ist. (As an aside, is anyone watching “Upstart Crow”? Might explain a lot, if you can stop laughing long enough.)
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Seems like a review by a bald person….
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I’ve got a full head of graying hair.
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If you have to keep watching movies like “Braveheart”, you won’t have it for long.
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“Braveheart” an American cartoon. Says it all really!
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Have read this post several times now, and each time it cracks me up! Absolutely fantastic that you’ve written this with such a sense of humor (hard to do while you’re rocking back and forth, for which: kudos!): people are more likely to keep reading and understand the facts. As a Scot, the kilt thing annoys me no end— BUT NOT AS MUCH as giving Robert the Bruces’ nickname to Wallace, or the monument to Wallace that bears Mel Gibson’s face. (No kidding.) Perhaps he commissioned it himself, ‘anonymously’. Who knows? It is terrifying to me that young Scots are learning their history via Hollywood’s lens.
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I feel your pain. I truly do.
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PS: The tartan we know today was reinvented by two English dudes from Surrey, England. Yes, plaid existed in the Highlands in medieval times—but as a cloak, not as a kilt. In the 1800s it stopped being illegal to wear it and that’s when it became fashionable. But the kilt was definitely not around in medieval times.
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Scots wha hey, hey, hey! read George Macdonald Fraser’s “Hollywood History of the World.” You’ll laugh, you’ll cry …
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I am utterly sick of resentful, overgrown school bully types making lies and smears about Scotland at every opportunity and the initial article is exactly that. A diatribe of resentful, disingenuous nonsense hidden inside a few relevent points.
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Would you care to be specific about my ‘lies’?
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I just read through the whole discussion, and I see nothing said by Larsen that was either a lie or a smear. There was a lot of discussion about Celts (which was interesting, but not especially relevant to the film) but that didn’t come from Larsen. First rule of marksmanship: be sure of your target!
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“descended from a people who displaced, conquered and completely absorbed the Picts“
The Gaels were a tribe of culturally Irish pirates that settled inhospitable little islands and a small area of what’s now the county of Dumbarton. Until the vikings kicked them out. There was a dark period of Viking ownership in historical knowledge. Until the kingdom of alba claimed the lands which is a Pictish kingdom, king called himself the king of the picts, that spoke Gaelic.
Going by DNA and piecing together the little historical knowledge seems more like the Picts United their peoples, the Picts having the much large population, and crowns. With Gaelic becoming the language given its development.
Seems even more likely given the non-existence DNA impact of Norse people western mainland Scotland.
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Prof. Brian Sykes, who knows more about the dna of Britain and Ireland than anyone alive, said very clearly that the dna of Scotland was basically the same as the Irish. The Picts, at best, were a small collection of wandering tribes and hardly a nation. Modern dna into Scottish surnames clearly shows that most Scots have an Irish link.
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You guys sound intelligent, so are you all so naive as to think Hollywood would or should give a rats ass about historical accuracy? They are running an entertainment business, not a University. They care about making a profit, and rightly so. If Americans want kilts that’s exactly what they should get. Which of you would like to invest millions on a project that will sell for 6 months or so before descending into the black hole of Netflix inventory, and yet allow your return on investment to be governed by historians? Not no, but hell no. Too bad if it shows Scots in a disparaging light. (I am of Scottish decent by the way.) Hollywood disparages everyone at some time or another so that makes it, more or less, an equal opportunity disparager – ask a Native American Indian. You guys, who are the enlightened among us, can’t agree to two words. Based on the scholarship I’ve read here, a sizable chunk of academia will disagree with Hollywood no matter what it does. This is all a barrel of fun – way more fun than watching the movie. That makes it hard to decide whether this is entertainment or historical debate. Not so with Hollywood. They tell you up front whether if it’s a documentary. If I ever think to look at this link again I’ll be fascinated to see what kind of fireworks this entry sets off. In the real world, however, costumes are pretty far down the list of things to care about.
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Perhaps if you’d have bothered to read the blog, you might have noticed that I actually talk s fair amount about the business of film-making and try to factor that into my evaluation of the films.
However, having said that, there’s no such thing as “just a movie”. The fact that Hollywood films are fun doesn’t mean they don’t have meaning or that they don’t influence how people understand the world. Films have often affected the way people think about politics and in some cases, films have been actively used to persuade audiences to engage in violence—the 1990s Serbian genocide was aggressively promoted with a movie about 14th century Serbia. So the fact that Hollywood is just trying to make a buck doesn’t inoculate them against having to be responsible for their own films. In fact, Braveheart had a substantial influence on Scottish politics because it was timed to coincide with a Scottish party’s push for independence from Britain.
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Your point can be explained by two general notes. Firstly, while Hollywood is an entertainment media, most people, usually Americans, believe historical dramas to be based on accurate events. So, putting it down as simple entertainment and ignoring historical accuracy is damaging. Secondly, you says that historians cannot agree. I see a lot of general agreement here regarding Braveheart. Yes, some finer points will always be debated but that does not detract from the point that Braveheart is very off the actual reality. Also, you should not presume that everyone who comments here are qualified to answer…..that makes you as bad as the “researchers” for Braveheart.
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One of the worst things about the movie in my opinion is the toxic pseudo-ethnic nationalism. Wallace, someone who was a member of the southern Anglo-Norman landed gentry and probably would have spoken Scots, is depicted as an embodiment of all of the racist stereotypes about Highlanders turned into virtues. The fact that Scotland is ethnically diverse with different peoples and languages migrating into the region is totally ignored. I might be reading too much into it, but I feel like the movie (regardless of intention) is basically saying these people aren’t really Scottish, or their culture doesn’t really matter to a movie about Scottish history, which is even more insulting when they’re making a movie specifically about a man from a (non-Gaelic) Scottish culture.
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